Information

  • Client

  • Document No.

  • Conducted on

Client information

  • First Name

  • Last Name

  • Certificate Number

  • Test Purpose

In Brief

In Brief: VOLUME 5 AIRMAN CERTIFICATION CHAPTER 2 TITLE 14 CFR PART 61 CERTIFICATION OF PILOTS Introduction Put applicant at ease A. Where are you from? B. How long have you been with? C. Have you eaten? D. Do you need anything to drink before we start? Agenda A. In brief (prerequisites) B. Oral C. Preflight D. Practical E. Debrief F. IACRA

Prerequisites

  • Select Test Purpose

  • Sign Application

  • Is address a PO Box?

  • Include map with directions to physical address.

  • Knowledge test result with seal.

  • Required verbiage to be entered on 8710 if test results older than 24 months...ref; 8900 Vol 5 Ch 3 Section 1 Application Phase

    “The validity period of this ATP knowledge test form is extended in accordance with the applicable provisions of § 61.39(b).”

Aeronautical Experience

  • 1200 hrs Total Time

  • 500 hrs X-country

  • 100 hours of Night...... Of which 15 hrs. were in helicopters. Night sim does not count

  • 75 hrs Instrument...of which 50 hrs was in flight with at least 25 hrs in helicopters

  • 200 hrs In a helicopter...of which 75 hrs of PIC, or as SIC performing duties of PIC, or any combination thereof.<br>

  • Pen and ink modifications can be made to the "Airman Certificate and/ or Rating Application" FAA Form 8710-1 to show the SIC time performing the duties of PIC used in conjunction with the PIC time to meet the PIC aeronautical experience requirements. For example...a simple pen entry of a slash or a dash (e.g. PIC/SIC in the "Pilot in Command" box of Section lll of FAA Form 8710-1 can be used to show PIC time vs SIC time.

  • Pilot Certificate...Hold Certificate during test (Verify ID same as photo ID)

  • Medical...not required for Sim

  • Photo ID...Drivers License, Passport (Verify ID AC 61-65D)

  • English...Read, Write, Converse fluently

  • GOM Current with latest FON

  • Flight Planning Material Current

Review POA A. Sequence of maneuvers 1. Plan all approaches to landing. 2. If OEI, consider restart within limits of company procedures. 3. Left seater will act as a good copilot, but no coaching authorized. 4. During the test, you must complete the landings from instrument approaches. B. Notes...at times you will see me taking notes, I do this to jog my memory during the debrief C. A perfect flight is not the Standard...the minimum Standard is identified in the PHI PTS dated April 2013. D. I will ask questions throughout the test E. There are three possible outcomes: 1. Pass...Temporary Certificate 2. Discontinuance 3. Unsatisfactory...Notice of Disapproval A. If you perform an unsatisfactory maneuver you will have to decide whether or not you want to continue the test. For the re-test, Maneuvers in addition to the unsat maneuver will be at the discretion of the check airmen. B. Double jeopardy...for applicants taking a 135 check to satisfy 61.157 requirements...an unsat for the 135 test is an unsat for the 61.157 also. If there are no questions we'll begin the Oral.

Oral Evaluation

SECTION 3 ORAL EXAMINATION

1. PILOT DOCUMENTATION

  • What documents are you required to have accessible or on your person?<br><br>Pilot Certificate, Current Medical, Govt. Issued Photo ID

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  • How are changes to the Operations Manual conveyed? Where can we find the FONs?<br><br>Any of the bases or on the PHI intranet.<br><br>

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  • How often are the Jeppesen charts revised?<br><br><br>Jeppesen charts are revised every 14 Days on a recurring cycle.<br><br>

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  • If we don't receive a revision, how can we verify IAP currency?<br><br>We must review FDC NOTAMs for amendment # to verify currency of IAP.<br><br>

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  • How would we know if an approach plate had changed mid revision cycle?<br><br>Must check NOTAMs for changes to plates cancellations or outages for planned airports and routes <br><br>

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2. REGULATIONS

  • What are the currency requirements to act as a PIC carrying passengers?<br><br>Within 90 days, 3 takeoffs and landings<br><br>

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  • What are the night currency requirements to act as a PIC carrying passengers?<br><br>Within 90 days, 3 takeoffs and landings between 1hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise<br><br>

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  • What are the IFR currency requirements for an SIC?<br><br>Within 6 months, 6 instrument approaches, intercepting and tracking radials, and holding procedures.<br><br>

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  • If an SIC has not completed 6 approaches may he still fly under IFR?<br><br>Yes, but prohibited from carrying passengers.<br><br>

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  • Is there any other way of determining IFR currency?<br><br>Instrument proficiency check within last 6 months resets currency. Recurrent training normally satisfies the requirement.<br><br>

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  • What are the duty time limitations under part 135?<br><br>Not more than 14 hour duty day, not more than 10 hours flight time dual pilot, or 8 hours single pilot.

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  • If you exceed duty time what must you do?<br><br>Refer to the rolling clock procedures to ensure limitations and procedures are correctly followed.

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  • What rest period is required between duty days?<br><br>10 hours of rest is required between duty days by PHI policies.

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  • When is a special VFR clearance required?<br><br>Ceiling less than 1000' or visibility less than 3sm in surfaced based controlled airspace.

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  • What are PHI's weather minimums under special VFR?<br><br>300 and 2 unless within 10nm of a base then 300 and 1

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  • At what altitude does Class E airspace begin? What about in the Gulf Of Mexico?<br><br>Surface, 700', 1200', 1500 > 14500.<br><br>

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  • What are the cloud clearance requirements when operating in Class E airspace below 10,000 MSL?<br><br>500' below, 1000' above, 2000' horizontal and 3 sm vis.

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  • What fuel is required to operate IFR offshore when a alternate is not required?<br><br>Fuel to destination plus suitable onshore landing site plus 30 minute reserve at normal cruise.

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  • What fuel is required to operate IFR offshore when an alternate is required?<br><br>Fuel to destination then to alternate plus 30 minute reserve at normal cruise.

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  • How often must a VOR check be accomplished?<br><br>Every 30 days using procedures outlined by the FAR`s and GOM.

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  • How can the pilot complete the required VOR check and what are the tolerances by method?<br><br>VOT: +- 4 degrees<br>designated airborne checkpoint: +-6 degrees<br>ground reference point along an airway: +-6 degrees<br>dual VORs tuned to same radial: +-4 degrees

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  • How does the pilot log the VOR check?<br><br>Form in front of logbook. Signature, type check, location of check, error noted and date required.

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  • Describe the IFR cruising altitudes.<br><br>Controlled airspace: As assigned<br>Uncontrolled airspace: West even thousands, East odd thousands.

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  • When can you descend below MDA or DA on approach?<br><br>position to safely land using normal rates of descent and,<br>flight visibility not less than prescribed and,<br>visual reference to runway environment obtained.

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  • If only approach lights are seen can we still descend below MDA or DA?<br><br>Yes but not lower than 100' above TDZE unless red terminating bars or red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.

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  • Is PHI authorized to takeoff or land under IFR without an approved weather station at that location?<br><br>No. All weather stations are required to be on location unless listed in a weather deviation.

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  • What are Operations Specifications?<br><br>Authorization to operate in certain geographic regions, and provides specific regulations, and deviations with regards to flight operations and maintenance.

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  • Where can you find the OpsSpecs?<br><br>The OpsSpecs can be found on the PHI Intranet and hard copy at the bases.<br>

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  • What is EOC?<br><br>Enhanced operational control. Adverse weather, etc requiring management oversight. Fuel reqts., flight restrictions etc.

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  • What are the 4 basic EOC conditions?<br><br>Color codes Green, Yellow, Amber, Red with varying requirements as specified in the GOM.

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  • With regards to EOC, when do flight restrictions and additional requirements begin?<br><br>Condition Amber. When weather observed.

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  • What is the weather minimum for VFR flight with one way fuel?<br><br>500 foot ceilings and 5 sm visibility for route to be flown.

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  • What fuel reserve is required when operating VFR with one way fuel and winds greater than 20 knots.<br><br>45 minutes

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  • What are the wind limitations for ground operations?<br><br>Refer to the Critical wind azimuth chart in the GOM for wind limits.

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  • What is D-Value?<br><br>D-value is defined as the overall helicopter length from tip to tip with rotors turning. Per GOM.

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  • What is a minimum unrestricted helideck?<br><br>.83 of D-Value defined as length of helicopter tip to tip rotors turning.

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  • If operating on a restricted deck, what planning must be accomplished?<br><br>Verify HOGE performance capability.

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3. AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS

a. landing gear- indicators, brakes, tires, nose wheel steering, skids, shocks

  • How would you preflight your brakes on the main landing gear?

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  • What do you consider the maximum rate of descent in FPM for landing? why?

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  • What indications are available to identify a hard landing, and what conditions would cause them?<br><br>CAS and sacrificial ring on top of struts, >480 - 720 FPM

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  • How are the landing gear extended/retracted?<br><br>Hydraulically with the number three utility system.

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  • What system or feature holds the gear in position once the landing gear are extended/retracted?<br><br>Internal mechanical locks.

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  • If the #3 hydraulic pump fails, how can we lower the landing gear?<br><br>Emergency blowdown bottles installed on each actuator charged with N2

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  • How do we know the blowdown bottles are properly serviced?<br><br>Pressure gauge on each blow down bottle. Needle should be in green arc.

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  • What is the shimmy damper and how do we verify proper servicing?<br><br>Damper to prevent nose wheel wobble during high speed taxi. Indicator pin above flush.

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b. powerplant- controls and indications, fire detection/protection, turbine wheels, compressors, and other related components.

  • What are the starter on limitations?<br><br>>15 2/5/2/30 <15 4/15/4/30

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  • What is the lower avoid range and which component does it relate too?<br><br>36 to 49% Nr<br>Tail rotor drive shaft

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  • What is the higher avoid range and which component does it relate too?<br><br>56 to 67% Nr<br>Np power turbine rub

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  • What is the source of power for the engine igniters?<br><br>The engine driven alternator<br>

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  • What contingency power rating is automatically armed if an engine fails? How can we select other contingency power settings?<br><br>30s power. Via the OEI select switch on either collective.

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  • If a contingency power time limit is exceeded how does the display change?<br><br>Counter reads 0 in red and timer arc displayed in red.

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  • Other than exceeding the time, what would cause the 30s timer to immediately display red?<br><br>4th entry into 30s power regardless of cumulative time.

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  • Which component controls engine operation? <br><br>FADEC

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  • What are the indications of a FADEC channel failure? Is any functionality lost?<br><br>ATT, BTP. No loss of power but power lim CAS displayed.

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c. fuel system- capacity, drains, pumps; controls; indicators; cross feeding

  • What are the different ways to refuel, and how does total quantity vary by method?<br><br>Pressure 764 gals. Gravity 713 gals.

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  • What amount of fuel is unusable?<br><br>4.8 lbs

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  • What component on the aircraft provides fuel flow information for display on the EICAS?<br><br>Fuel metering valve position in FMU to DCU for display

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  • What are the EICAS indications of an impending low fuel condition?<br><br>Green and yellow fuel tape based upon 1hour fuel remaining at current flow and configuration.

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  • Approximately what amount of fuel remains when you get the fuel low lights?<br><br>215 +/- 45 lbs

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  • Are there any limitations when a Fuel Low CAS illuminates?<br><br>Steady state 10 degrees nose up or 5 degrees nose down.

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  • Is cross feeding fuel authorized during flight?<br><br>CAT A Emergency only. CAT B cruise flight.

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  • How many prime pumps are installed and what component controls their operation.<br><br>2 MDC alternates pump in use with cycles

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  • What are the considerations for an out of balance fuel condition?<br><br>>700 lbs. coupled with grossly unbalanced loading may result in lateral CG issue.

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  • What does the fuel pre-check test procedure verify?<br><br>Proper operation of the high level shutoff switches.

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d. oil system- capacity, grade quantities, indicators

  • Where are the engine oil reservoirs located?

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  • How is engine oil cooled?<br><br>Fuel Oil heat exchanger...extra credit if they mention the engine inlet stator vanes!<br>

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  • Is fuzz burn available on the engine chip detectors?

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e. hydraulic system- capacity, pumps, pressure, reservoirs

  • How many conventional hydraulic systems are installed on the SK92?<br><br>3

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  • What is the normal operating pressure range for Hydraulic Systems 1 or 2?<br><br>Normal 3500 - 4200 PSI

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  • What does the #2 Hydraulic pump pressurize?<br><br>#2 M/R servos, #2 T/R servo, SAS 2, Boost

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  • Discuss LDI.<br><br>Use the schematic in the CL.

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  • What is the airspeed limitation with boost off?<br><br>120 KIAS

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  • What is the purpose of the backup isolation valves?<br><br>Isolates the #3 hydraulic system from a leaking primary system and prevents over-servicing of the #1 and #2 systems during normal operations.

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  • In addition to backing up the #1 and #2 Hydraulic systems, what does the utility system provide?<br><br>Note: Landing gear, APU accumulate recharge, operates ramp.

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  • What is normal system pressure for the #3 hydraulic system in the depressurized mode?<br><br>Note: 2000 +/- 1000

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  • Describe how the #1 and #2 hydraulic systems are cooled?<br><br>Note: AC fan on each cooler. Coolers are dual chamber.

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  • Is there a CAS message for a Hyd Fan Failure? What does it mean?<br><br>Dual fan failure.

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  • How are the hydraulic reservoirs serviced?<br><br>Hand pump

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  • What indication is present when an emergency blow down of the landing gear has been previously accomplished?<br><br>Indicator extended on the utility supply module that prevents inadvertent raising of the gear after blowdown which must be reset by maint. personnel.

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f. electrical system- alternators, generators, battery, circuit breakers and protection devices, controls, indicators, external and auxiliary power sources and ratings.

  • How are the Main Generators cooled?<br><br>MGB Oil.

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  • If a GCU FAIL CAS is displayed without a corresponding GEN Fail CAS, what protection has been lost. What happens upon WOW?<br><br>Under frequency...allows generators to stay coupled below 95%Nr. Corresponding GEN Failure

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  • What are the functions of the Generator Control Unit (GCU)?<br><br>Regulate and Protect...Over Volt, Under Volt, Feeder Fault, Under Frequency.

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  • What is a feeder fault?<br><br>Direct short to ground fault. GCU disables generator when over-amperage condition is detected by current transformers on each phase output.

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  • How can we distinguish between a dual generator failure and a dual converter failure?<br><br>Loss of AHRS on pilot's side

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  • Which component allows us to keep AHRS on pilot's side following dual converter failure?<br><br>Backup converter powers DC Essential

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  • In addition to circuit breakers, what other electrical protective devices are installed?<br><br>Current limiters.

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  • What external power inputs are available?<br>

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  • Which component protects the aircraft from AC external power input faults?<br><br>External power monitor. Same functions as GCU + monitors for correct phase rotation.

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  • Which components drive Main Generators 1 and 2?<br><br>Accessory Gear Box.

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APU

  • What are the functions of the APU?<br><br>The APU generator provides electrical power to the helicopter when on the ground when the rotors are not turning, and emergency power while in the air. The APU also provides pneumatic power for engine starting and heating for the cockpit and cabin.

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  • What is VNE for APU starting and operation?<br><br>150 KIAS

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  • Will the APU Generator meet all power requirements if it is the soul source of AC power?<br><br>Auto shed...WARM Air

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  • You are performing an Air Restart. With the AIR SRCE HEAT/START Switch in ENG...Will the Air Source be the Engine or the APU?<br><br>NOTE The APU should be ON for in-flight engine restarts if possible. Use of engine cross-bleed will result in a loss of up to 3% power of the operating engine. With the AIR SRCE HEAT/START switch in the ENG position and the APU on, the system will use the engine as the air source if the operating engine is approximately 80% torque or above. If the operating engine is below approximately 80% torque, the system will use the APU as the air source.

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  • The APU FAULT CAS illuminates during flight and you decide to keep the APU on line. What will happen to the APU when WOW is sensed?

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g. environmental systems- heating, cooling, ventilation, controls

  • What operational limitation exists with regard to the environmental systems?<br><br>No off or Max A/C in cockpit during flight.

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  • What power source do the heaters utilize?<br><br>Bleed air from the Engines or APU.

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  • Describe some conditions that would result in heating being disabled.<br><br>OEI (APU off), engine starts, over temp, fire

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  • What Is the DTCU?<br><br>Digital temperature control unit. Controls A/C system operation and adjusts EPR valve to maintain rheostat set temperature in cockpit or cabin.

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h. avionics and communications- autopilot; flight director; EFIS; FMS, VOR, NDB, ILS, RNAV systems and components; transponder; ELT

  • What does a Yellow Double Headed Arrow over eng #1 TGT mean?<br><br>Mis-compare between side one/two.

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  • What flight instruments are lost with an AHRS Failure?<br><br>ADI HSI<br>

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  • What flight instruments are lost with a DCU Failure?<br><br>DCU 1 - All EICAS and Performance inputs to Side one. Hydraulic and MGB Pressure on Side two.<br>DCU 2 - All EICAS and Performance inputs to Side two.<br>

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  • What systems must be operational to maintain ATT?<br><br>3 of 4 rule, cyclic and yaw trim

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  • What does SAS provide?<br><br>Short term rate damping

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  • How much control authority does SAS have?<br><br>5% each, 10% total

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  • How much control authority do the autopilots have? Is it the same if one has failed?<br><br>100%, same but rate limited to 5% per second.

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  • How can we distinguish between SAS, trim, or boost hard-overs?<br><br>No flight control movement for SAS, trim button depressed?

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  • If coupled 3 cue and we experience OEI, what will the AFCS do with regards to airspeed?<br><br>Decelerate to Vbroc.

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  • If the #1 RTU fails can we still utilize the #1 radios? How would we change frequencies on them?<br><br>Yes. Turn off failed RTU and use 1/2 key on #2 RTU to access the #1 radios.

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i. ice protection- anti-ice, deice, pitot-static system protection, windshield, rotor protection.

  • What anti-ice protection is available on the engines?<br><br>Electrical mats for airframe inlet protection and bleed air for engine inlet

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  • What limitations exist regarding engine anti-ice?<br><br>Limited to 60 seconds on the ground unless OAT <5 degrees, and visible moisture present.

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  • If an anti-ice degrade CAS appears, which system is affected?<br><br>Bleed air

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  • How will we know if a pitot heater fails?<br><br>CAS

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  • Describe windshield anti-ice?

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  • How does de-ice differ from anti-ice?

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  • What is RIPS?

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  • How do we control RIPS?<br><br>PFD

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  • If operating in icing while OEI, which RIPS mode should be selected?<br><br>Manual heavy.

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j. crew-member and passenger equipment- survival gear, emergency exits, emergency lighting.

  • What type of emergency equipment is available on the S-92?<br><br>First aid kits, fire extinguishers, floats and rafts

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  • Describe the emergency exits in the S-92.<br><br>4 primary cabin, each side window in cockpit

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  • How would we jettison the cockpit windows?<br><br>Pull handle and push out.

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  • What emergency lighting is installed?<br><br>HEELS, cabin overhead, emergency exits, floor, exterior

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  • In addition to enabling automatic operation of the emergency lights after power loss, what does the arm position provide?<br><br>Battery charging

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  • How are the floats deployed?<br><br>Manually or automatically with immersion switch.

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  • What are the airspeed limits following an inadvertent float deployment?<br><br>50 climb, 55 level, 60 descent.

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  • When should the life rafts be deployed if required?<br><br>Blades stopped.

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k. main/tail rotor systems- transmissions, gear boxes, rotor brake

  • If we experience a MGB pump 1 or 2 failure what indications will we observe in the cockpit?<br><br>Pressure 5 to 10 PSI, EICAS warning segment, and "Gear Box Pressure" audio

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  • What action/s would you take in the event of a complete loss of tail rotor trust in flight?

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  • What action/s would you take in the event of a complete loss of tail rotor trust in a hover?

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  • At what Nr should the droop stops disengage and re-engage?<br><br>70%Nr and 50%Nr

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  • The focal bearing between the main rotor hub and a main rotor blade is...what kind of bearing?<br><br>

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  • What does the anhedral swept back main rotor tip cap provide for aircraft performance?<br><br>4% of the lift

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  • What is the minimum transient Nr during an OEI landing?<br><br>80% Nr.

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  • What causes the Rotor Brake CAS to illuminate?<br><br>WOW pressure or pucks, in flight pressure,and pucks

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  • What conditions would cause a IGB or TGB oil level CAS to illuminate?<br><br>Ng 1 and 2 zero, Nr <10%, <66% quantity

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  • What does the AVC compensate for?<br><br>Vibrations associated with the M/R system frequencies.

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  • What other provisions are installed to counter M/R vibrations?<br><br>Bifilar.

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flight controls

  • What does the mixing unit provide for us?<br><br>Collective to pitch, roll and yaw, and yaw to pitch.

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  • Choose two of the four previously discussed functions and explain what the mix compensates for.

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  • What does an RVDT do? Which aircraft system would want to know the position of the flight controls?<br><br>Measure rotary movement. The FCC/AFCS and the FADECS needs to know the location of the flight controls.

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  • What are the indications of a single T/R cable failure? What about a dual cable failure?

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l. pitot-static system with associated instruments

  • What flight instruments are lost with an ADC Failure?<br><br>Airspeed Altitude VSI

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  • Where are the static ports located?<br><br>On the pitot tubes

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OPERATING LIMITATIONS

  • Is Part 1 Section 1 Regulatory?<br><br>NOTE Compliance with the limitations in this section is mandatory.

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  • Under which FAR is the SK92 Certified?<br><br>BASIS OF CERTIFICATION This helicopter is certified in accordance with FAR Part 29 Category A and Category B requirements.

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  • Which components of the AFCS are required for Flight in IMC?<br><br>AFCS: Day or night, IFR or VFR - (Normal Operations): - PSAS1 and PSAS2, AP1 and AP2, ATT Mode, cyclic and rudder trim. Maximum VNE is 165 KIAS.

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  • Can you Dispatch with PSAS Inoperative?<br><br>Takeoff with a secondary SAS engaged is not authorized. Secondary SAS may be engaged after an inflight failure of a primary SAS computer.

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  • May Navigation be predicated upon EGPWS?<br><br>Navigation must not be predicated upon the use of EGPWS information.

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  • With regards to course guidance, how would you Setup a VOR Approach that does not have either RNAV or GPS in the Title?<br><br>When using FMS guidance for conducting instrument approach procedures that do not include GPS or RNAV in the title of the published procedure, unless otherwise authorized by local authority, the flight crew must verify that the procedure-specified navaid and associated avionics are operational.<br><br>AIM 1-2-6 Area Navigation (RNAV) and Required Navigation Performance (RNP)

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  • What types of approaches are NOT authorized to be conducted with the FMS?<br><br>ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF, and MLS approaches are not authorized.

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  • Slope Limitations?<br><br>Slope landing limits are 10° nose up or down slope, 13° left or right side of the aircraft up slope.

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  • What is power on VNE?<br><br>VNE power on (maximum airspeed) is 165 KIAS.

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  • How is VNE calculated and displayed?<br><br>Pressure altitude, temperature, and AGW. Calculated value displayed on outer edge of A/S indicator as red arc.

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  • What is power off VNE?<br><br>VNE power off is 120 KIAS. If VNE power on is less than 120 KIAS, the lower VNE shall apply for the power off case as well. <br>Maximum airspeed with one engine inoperative is 120 KIAS.

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  • What is the maximum ground speed for T/O and Landing?<br><br>Maximum groundspeed for normal landing or takeoff is 50 knots. NOTE After landing in excess of 50 knots groundspeed, further flight and towing is prohibited. Taxi operations are permitted.

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  • What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operations?<br><br>Maximum airspeed for standard windshield wiper operations is 40 knots. Maximum airspeed for improved windshield wiper operations is 100 KIAS.

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  • DEO TGT?<br><br>995 C - 5 MINUTE LIMIT TAKEOFF <br>988 C - 30 MINUTE LIMIT <br>935 C MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS

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  • OEI TGT?<br><br>1049 C - 30 SECOND <br>1006 C - 2 MINUTE <br>988 C MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS

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  • DEO Q?<br><br>120% - 10 SECOND TRANSIENT <br>100% - CONTINUOUS WITH AIRSPEED < 100 KIAS <br>86% - CONTINUOUS WITH AIRSPEED > 100 KIAS

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  • OEI Q?<br><br>141% - 121% TO 141% - 30 SECOND OPERATION <br>0 TO 120% NORMAL OPERATION

  • Comments:

  • MGB Pressure?<br><br>CONTINUOUS <br>p45 TO 70 PSI, Nr ≥ 80% OR AIRCRAFT IN THE AIR <br>30 TO 70 PSI, Nr BETWEEN 50 - 80% AND AIRCRAFT ON GROUND <br>20 TO 70 PSI, Nr ≤ 50% AND AIRCRAFT ON GROUND <br>PRECAUTIONARY <br>35 TO 45 PSI, Nr ≥ 80% OR AIRCRAFT IN THE AIR <br>10 TO 30 PSI, Nr BETWEEN 50 - 80% AND AIRCRAFT ON GROUND <br>10 TO 20 PSI, Nr ≤ 50% AND AIRCRAFT ON GROUND <br>MINIMUM <br>35 PSI, Nr ≥ 80% OR AIRCRAFT IN THE AIR <br>10 PSI, Nr BETWEEN 50 - 80% AND AIRCRAFT ON GROUND <br>10 PSI, Nr ≤ 50% AND AIRCRAFT ON GROUND

  • Comments:

4. WEIGHT AND BALANCE

  • What are the approved methods for calculating weight and balance?<br><br>EFB, long hand per RFM, loading schedule

  • Comments:

  • Where can you find information regarding loading schedules?<br><br>Company flight manuals chapter of the GOM.

  • Comments:

  • How do you know if the EFB has correct information regarding weight and balance?<br><br>Verify with RFM

  • Comments:

  • What is the maximum weight for the baggage compartment? What about loading limit on the shelf? What about the ramp in pounds per square foot?<br><br><br>When the rear ramp area is configured for stowing baggage (aft cabin cargo bulkhead and shelf installed), the maximum combined load is 1,000 pounds (454 kilograms). The maximum shelf load is 300 pounds (136 kilograms). The maximum floor ramp load is 1,000 pounds (454 kilograms). Maximum floor loading on the ramp is 200 pounds per square foot (976.5 kilograms per square meter).

  • Comments:

5. NAVIGATION

  • What are the different visibility minimums authorized for departing IFR?<br><br>Adequate Vis Ref: 1/4 sm or 1200 RVR if authorized<br>Equal to Landing Minimums: lowest straight in IFR approach at airport<br>Standard: 1/2 sm or 2400 RVR if authorized<br>Higher than Standard: if published

  • Comments:

  • What are the crew qualification requirements for adequate vis ref?<br><br>Properly trained<br>PIC 100 hours make and model as PIC<br>SIC 100 hours make and model

  • Comments:

  • What is minimum vis for departing KPTN with qualified crew, and approach lights out of service?<br><br>1/4 sm

  • Comments:

  • When is a departure alternate required?<br><br>Departing with less than landing mins.

  • Comments:

  • What are the requirements for designating a departure alternate?<br><br>Must be authorized alternate, with alternate weather mins forecast at ETA and within 1 hour of departure at normal cruise.

  • Comments:

  • If departing with adequate vis ref 1200 RVR, is a departure alternate required?<br><br>Yes. Landing mins never less than 1600 RVR

  • Comments:

  • What is min vis to depart 7LS3?<br><br>Std: 1/2 SM

  • Comments:

  • What is required if departing a heliport with less than 1 SM visibility?<br><br>One of listed airports for that heliport must be at landing minimums.<br><br>

  • Comments:

  • What is minimum weather required to dispatch to an OSAP (day)?<br><br>At time of departure weather must be reporting at least 200' ceilings and 3/4 SM. 300 and 1 if crew not qualified.

  • Comments:

  • What is minimum weather required to dispatch to a HEDA (day)?<br><br>Area forecast must be at least 400 and 1.

  • Comments:

  • What is minimum weather required to file IFR to offshore location and not require an alternate?<br><br>At departure and ETA +/- 1 hour, 2000 and 3 SM.

  • Comments:

  • What is minimum weather required to file IFR to onshore location and not require an alternate?<br><br>At ETA +/- 1 hour, 1500 above lowest circling minimum, or if no circling approach authorized, at least 1500 above lowest HAT, or 2000 above airport whichever is higher<br>Visibility 3 SM or 2 SM above lowest vis minimum whichever is higher.

  • Comments:

  • If an alternate is required, what weather is required at that location?<br><br>Onshore: At ETA ceilings at least 200' above HAT or HAA and at least 1 sm but never less than the approach minimums.<br>Offshore: At departure and prior to crossing PNR and forecast to be 800' and 2 sm

  • Comments:

  • Can any airport or heliport be used as an alternate if it meets weather requirements?<br><br>No. Must be authorized as an alternate.

  • Comments:

  • Where can you find a list of approved alternates?<br><br>PHI intranet.

  • Comments:

  • Can you couple to the FMS to complete a VOR approach?<br><br>As long as you have a bearing pointer for the VOR displayed, and the VOR does not fail during the approach.

  • Comments:

  • Can you use RNAV minimums for an alternate airport?<br><br>As long as the approach and airport are approved and there is another approach not requiring GPS unless WAAS equipped.

  • Comments:

6. ATC PROCEDURES

  • What does a cruise clearance authorize you to do?<br><br>Climb and descend between specified altitude and MEA, and clears you for the approach.

  • Comments:

  • What are the requirements for a visual approach clearance?<br><br>1000' and 3 sm, and landing area or preceding aircraft in sight.

  • Comments:

  • What is a TAA?<br><br>Terminal Arrival Area, advises pilots of altitudes and procedure turn for that sector. If cleared for that approach, adherence is mandatory.

  • Comments:

  • What is the difference between proceed VFR and proceed visually?<br><br>Weather minimums for VFR apply. Proceed visually requires acquiring visual contact with landing site and be in a position to safely continue with published visibility minimums. For Gulf operations, PHI has visibility waiver authorizing proceed visually if landing at one of listed sites. Example: GPS 333 7LS3 proceed VFR from MAP to landing. Landing at Morgan City Base, you may continue with 1/2 sm vis.

  • Comments:

  • What are the different ways to receive an IFR clearance offshore?<br><br>Houston Center directly if able, sat phone, comm center relay, or climb VFR to reception altitude if able.

  • Comments:

  • Can you use the EFB to receive an IFR clearance?<br><br>Request through EFB, but must verbally receive clearance and void time prior to entering IMC.

  • Comments:

  • What is a standard offshore holding pattern?<br><br>360 inbound, 1 minute legs, 100 KIAS

  • Comments:

  • What is the appropriate offshore routing for a non-ADSB aircraft?<br><br>Segments must be longitudinal, latitudinal, or 45 degree course between waypoints

  • Comments:

  • What is required for off airway direct RNAV routing onshore?<br><br>ATC radar coverage.

  • Comments:

METEOROLOGY

  • What areas does the PHI FAGX20 cover?<br><br>Coastal plains, coastal waters,and Houston FIR. In addition RAM TAFs are available for areas such as MCY, BVL that would otherwise not have a TAF.

  • Comments:

  • What constitutes coastal waters for the FAGX20?<br><br>Coastline to the Houston FIR

  • Comments:

  • If an area does not have a TAF, can we plan our IFR flight there anyway?<br><br>Area forecast may be used for locations without a TAF.

  • Comments:

  • Where can a pilot find information specific to IFR conditions?<br><br>AIRMET-S

  • Comments:

  • Where can a pilot find information specific to turbulence?<br><br>AIRMET-T

  • Comments:

  • Where can a pilot find information specific to icing?<br><br>AIRMET-Z

  • Comments:

  • What atmospheric conditions are conducive to icing?<br><br>4 degrees C or less and visible moisture.

  • Comments:

  • What is necessary for the formation of ice?<br><br>Visible moisture and collecting surface at or below freezing.

  • Comments:

  • What are the approved weather reporting services?<br><br>ASOS, AWOS 3, individually approved AWOS2, SAWRS, and LAWRS

  • Comments:

  • Are we authorized to use remote altimeter settings for approaches?<br><br>No, must have weather at the location unless listed as a weather deviation.

  • Comments:

  • Where do we find information about severe thunderstorm activity?<br><br>Convective SIGMETs, and convective outlooks.

  • Comments:

  • What are some of dangers associated with thunderstorms?<br><br>Hail, downdrafts, lightning, turbulence, etc.

  • Comments:

  • What is the recommended thunderstorm avoidance distance?<br><br>20 miles.

  • Comments:

  • What does the term embedded thunderstorms mean?<br><br>Storms are obscured by clouds.

  • Comments:

  • What type of weather is associated with fast moving cold fronts?<br><br>Squall lines

  • Comments:

  • What conditions are conducive to the formation of fog?<br><br>Temp dewpoint within 2 degrees and generally calm wind.

  • Comments:

8. PROCEDURES FOR:

  • Recognizing and avoiding severe weather.

  • Comments:

  • Escaping severe weather.

  • Comments:

  • Operating near thunderstorms.<br><br>EOC

  • Comments:

9. NEW EQUIPMENT/PROCEDURES/TECHNIQUES

10. AIRWORTHINESS

  • What items are required in the aircraft?<br><br>a. logbook<br>b. MEL<br>c. Airworthiness Cert.<br>d. registration<br>e. RFM with supplements<br>f. weight and balance<br>g. Pax brief cards<br>h. PED list<br>i. Aircraft C.L.<br>j. HAZMAT acceptance guide<br>k. pilot notification form (HAZMAT)<br>l. emergency response guidebook<br>m. GOM<br>n. current FLIP for flight

  • Comments:

  • How often should the due list be reprinted?<br><br>14 days

  • Comments:

  • Are items found on the status report mandatory?<br><br>No, only items on the due list.

  • Comments:

  • Does a daily have to be signed off prior to flight?<br><br>Yes

  • Comments:

  • How long is the daily valid for?<br><br>24 hours

  • Comments:

  • Can pilots sign off daily's?<br><br>Yes, but if there are AD's in the daily, pilots not trained and documented for those AD's cannot sign off the daily.

  • Comments:

  • How do you know if an aircraft is under an MEL restriction?<br><br>Deferred maintenance log in logbook.

  • Comments:

  • If there is an open MEL, where can you find restriciton?<br><br>Remarks section on deferred maint. log or consult MEL.

  • Comments:

  • Are there time limits associated with MEL items?<br><br>Categorized in MEL

  • Comments:

  • When is a "no defects noted" statement required in the logbook?<br><br>No issues noted and aircraft changes crew or last flight of day.

  • Comments:

  • What happens if a PIC fails to close out the logbook after flight?<br><br>PIC must be contacted to verify no defects noted, or the aircraft requires an operational check flight.

  • Comments:

11. AERODYNAMICS

  • What are the factors associated with dynamic rollover?<br><br>Lift/thrust overcoming weight, a pivot point, and a rolling motion established.

  • Comments:

  • What are the operational procedures designed to reduce the risk of dynamic rollover?<br><br>After landing, PF decreases collective full down, PM confirms prior to initiating ground taxi.

  • Comments:

  • What methods should you employ to reduce dynamic rollover risk during taxiing turns?<br><br>Cyclic displaced into turn to maintain level fuselage attitude, reduce speed prior to turn, and reduce power.

  • Comments:

  • Describe settling with power.<br><br>

  • Comments:

  • How do we minimize potential for SWP?<br><br>PC2 profile adhered to.

  • Comments:

  • How do we recover from SWP?<br><br>Directional cyclic, and lower collective if altitude permits.

  • Comments:

12. HAZMAT

  • How are PHI aircraft categorized with regards to HAZMAT?<br><br>Cargo Aircraft.

  • Comments:

  • What does the quantity limit in the HAZMAT acceptance guide refer to?<br><br>Per package quantity.

  • Comments:

  • How do you handle unexpected HAZMAT?<br><br>Refer to HAZMAT checklist/acceptance guide. Mark "accepted by PHI" on HAZMAT sheet, complete and sign pilot notification form, file with manifests at days end.

  • Comments:

13. HUMAN FACTORS

  • Facilitate CRM discussion.

  • Comments:

14. GENERAL EMERGENCY

  • What are the memory items for an engine fire?<br><br>Fly, identify, throttle idle, checklist.

  • Comments:

  • Describe loss of T/R thrust in cruise flight.

  • Comments:

  • What is immediate action for loss of T/R thrust in cruise flight.<br><br>Lower collective to reduce yaw.

  • Comments:

Flight Evaluation

4 CHECKRIDE MANEUVERS

4.2 PREFLIGHT INSPECTION

  • Exhibits adequate knowledge of preflight procedures

  • Comments:

4.3 PRE-TAKEOFF CHECKS

  • Exhibits adequate knowledge of pre checks, performance, and airworthiness.<br>

  • Comments:

  • Binding in flight controls during flight control check.

  • Comments:

4.4 ENGINE STARTING

  • Exhibits adequate knowledge of power plant starting procedures.

  • Comments:

  • Hot Start

  • Comments:

  • Hung Start

  • Comments:

  • SOV Wrong Position

  • Comments:

4.5 TAXI OPERATIONS

4.5.1 SURFACE TAXI

  • Exhibits knowledge of elements related to surface taxi<br><br>+- 2 feet track

  • Comments:

4.5.2 HOVER TAXI

  • Exhibits knowledge of elements related to hover taxi<br><br>+- 2 feet track alt.:=-.5 foot<10 feet, +-5 feet>10 feet

  • Comments:

4.5.3 AIR TAXI

  • Exhibits knowledge of elements related to air taxi<br><br>maintains ground track, alt.:+-5 feet

  • Comments:

FLIGHT TEST

VFR MANEUVERS

  • Traffic Pattern Location

  • Reversion

  • Landing

4.9 RAPID DECELERATION

  • Exhibits knowledge of rapid deceleration.<br><br>heading +-10

  • Comments:

4.6 TAKEOFF

  • Exhibits adequate knowledge of normal and cross-wind takeoffs.<br><br>Briefs, heading +-10, airspeed +-5, turns>300 ft. AGL, complies with coupling policies.

  • Comments:

IFR MANEUVERS

  • Conducts PC2 Takeoff<br><br>Briefs, heading +-10, airspeed +-5, turns>300 ft. AGL, complies with coupling policies.

  • Comments:

4.8 TAKEOFF WITH POWERPLANT FAILURE

  • OEI rejected takeoff

  • III. AREA OF OPERATION: TAKEOFF AND DEPARTURE PHASE. D. TASK: REJECTED TAKEOFF Comments:

  • Landing

4.7 INSTRUMENT TAKEOFF

  • Airspeed +/- 10

  • Comments:

  • Heading +/- 10

  • Comments:

  • Altitude +/- 100

  • Comments:

4.10 INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE

  • Standard plus 2 way radio failure.

  • Comments:

4.11 STEEP TURNS

  • Steep Turn Left<br><br>A/S +/- 10, ALT +/- 100, HDG +/- 10, Bank +/-5

  • Comments:

  • Steep Turn Right<br><br>A/S +/- 10, ALT +/- 100, HDG +/- 10, Bank +/-5

  • Comments:

4.12 SETTLING WITH POWER

  • Recovery

  • Comments:

4.13 UNUSUAL ATTITUDE RECOVERY

  • Unusual Attitude Recovery

  • Nose Up <br><br>Left or right turn, increasing or decreasing power

  • Comments:

  • Nose Down<br><br>Opposite turn and power setting from previous.

  • Comments:

  • Reversion

4.14 INSTRUMENT ARRIVAL

  • Airspeed +/- 10

  • Comments:

  • Altitude +/- 100

  • Comments:

  • Heading +/- 10

  • Comments:

INSTRUMENT APPROACHES

  • 4.17 Engine Out Hand Flown Precision/Precision Like Approach

  • Procedure Turn

  • Radar Vectors

  • Circle to Land

  • CDI Deflection<br><br>Prior to Glide Slope Intercept: +/- 3/4 Scale<br>Glide Slope to 500 HAT: +/- 1/2 Scale<br>

  • Comments:

  • DA - 0<br><br>

  • Comments:

  • Airspeed +/- 10

  • Comments:

  • OEI Landing

  • Comments:

  • Missed Approach

  • Comments:

  • Published

  • Amended

  • Confined Area and Slope Operations

  • Confined Area Operations<br>

  • Comments:

  • Slope Operations<br><br>HDG: +/- 10<br>

  • Comments:

  • IIMC<br>

  • Comments:

  • Manually controlled Non-Precision Approach

  • Procedure Turn

  • Radar Vectors

  • Circle to Land

  • CDI +/- 3/4 scale<br>

  • Comments:

  • Bearing Pointer +/- 10 degrees<br>

  • Comments:

  • MDA +100 / -0<br><br>

  • Comments:

  • Airspeed +/- 10

  • Comments:

  • Balked Landing <50' AGL

  • OEI Climbout

  • OEI Climbout/Takeoff

  • Comments:

  • Missed Approach

  • Comments:

  • Published

  • Amended

  • OEI

  • Holding

  • Holding

  • Comments:

  • Coupled Non-Precision Approach

  • Procedure Turn

  • Radar Vectors

  • Circle to Land

  • CDI +/- 3/4 scale<br>

  • Comments:

  • Bearing Pointer +/- 10 degrees<br>

  • Comments:

  • MDA +100 / -0<br><br>

  • Comments:

  • Airspeed +/- 10

  • Comments:

  • Balked Landing <50' AGL

  • OEI Climbout

  • OEI Climbout/Takeoff

  • III. ARE OF OPERATIONS: TAKEOFF AND DEPARTURE PHASE C. TASK: POWERPLANT FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF Comments:

  • Missed Approach

  • V. AREA OF OPERATION: INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES E. TASK: MISSED APPROACH Comments:

  • Published

  • Amended

  • OEI

  • Holding

  • Holding

  • V. AREA OF OPERATION: INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES B. TASK: HOLDING Comments:

  • Coupled Precision/Precision Like Approach

  • Procedure Turn

  • Radar Vectors

  • Circle to Land

  • CDI Deflection<br><br>Prior to Glide Slope Intercept: +/- 3/4 Scale<br>Glide Slope to 500 HAT: +/- 1/2 Scale<br>

  • Comments:

  • DA - 0<br><br>

  • V. AREA OF OPERATION: INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES C. TASK: PRECISION INSTRUMENT APPROACHES Comments:

  • Airspeed +/- 10

  • Comments:

  • OEI Landing

  • Comments:

  • Missed Approach

  • Comments:

  • Published

  • Amended

  • Parking and securing.

  • Post shutdown fire.

  • Comments:

Comments

  • Comments:

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